1.      Which aspect of project performance must be managed to ensure the project's products are fit for purpose?

A.    Benefits

B.     Quality

C.     Risk

D.    Scope

2.        Which principle helps to define what should be included and what should be excluded from a project?

A.      Defined roles and responsibilities

B.       Focus on products

C.       Manage by stages

D.      Continued business justification

3.        Which project characteristic suggests that projects should have a defined start and a defined end?

A.      Change

B.       Temporary

C.       Cross-functional

D.      Risk

4.        Identify the missing words in the following sentence.

A project is [ ? ] organization that is created for the purpose of delivering business products.

A.      a corporate

B.       a temporary

C.       an external

D.      a technical

5.        Which is one of the four integrated elements within PRINCE2?

A.      Activities

B.       Processes

C.       Products

D.      Techniques

6.        Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?

A.      It is a method specifically designed for technical projects

B.       It provides for the efficient and economic use of management time

C.       It includes many of the proven planning techniques, such as critical path analysis

D.      It can be used to manage both projects and programmes

7.        Which is assumed to be a customer's responsibility in the PRINCE2 customer/supplier environment?

A.      Specifying the desired result

B.       Providing the resources and skills to deliver the desired result

C.       Ensuring the technical integrity of a project

D.      Developing a project's products

8.        What is documented in the Benefits Review Plan?

A.      Risks to the realization of the expected benefits

B.       Activities to measure the expected benefits

C.       Business justification for undertaking the project

D.      Overall costs and timescales of the project

9.        Which theme provides the justification for the project?

A.      Quality

B.       Plans

C.       Progress

D.      Business Case

10.    Which product should be used to record a project's expected dis-benefits?

A.      Project Product Description

B.       Business Case

C.       Project Plan

D.      Risk Register

11.    Which role could the Project Manager also perform?

A.      Executive

B.       Senior Supplier

C.       Project Assurance

D.      Team Manager

12.    Which statement about stakeholder interests is FALSE?

A.      The Project Board should have representation from each of the business, user and supplier interests

B.       The term 'customer' is usually interpreted as a collective term for the business and user interests

C.       The Senior Supplier(s) will represent the interests of those who will operate the project's outputs.

D.      The Executive will represent those individuals or groups who have an interest in the project's finances.

13.    Who are considered as the stakeholders in a project?

A.      Only those benefitting from the project

B.       Everyone in the corporate organization

C.       Everyone involved in or affected by the project

D.      Only those in the customer organization

14.    What can be done to control the size of the Project Board on a project that involves multiple users and suppliers?

A.      Create a separate Project Board to manage the supplier elements of the project

B.       Create multiple smaller Project Boards during the process of Starting up a Project, one for each of the project's stages.

C.       Create user and supplier groups

D.      Appoint corporate quality assurance to perform the Project Assurance role for all members of the Project Board

15.    Which role is part of the Project Board?

A.      Corporate or programme management

B.       Risk owner

C.       Project Manager

D.      Senior Supplier

16.    Which is a purpose of the Organization theme?

A.      To determine the necessary project resources

B.       To establish governance for the project

C.       To capture the stakeholders' project acceptance criteria

D.      To assess the level of uncertainty that needs controlling

17.    Who should a project assurance role report to?

A.      Every member of the project management team

B.       Only the Executive of the Project Board

C.       The Project Board member for the area of interest

D.      The Project Manager for the project

18.    Which is an objective of the quality review technique?

A.      To identify a product's quality criteria

B.       To provide assurance that the project is being conducted properly

C.       To assess that a product conforms to set criteria

D.      To ensure that staff are properly trained in the quality methods

19.    Which is a recommended quality review team role?

A.      Project Manager

B.       Assurance

C.       Chair

D.      Producer

20.    Which statements about customer's quality expectations are CORRECT?

1.  They form a specific and precise list of measurable criteria

2.  They define the approval method for the products

3.  They are often expressed in broad terms

4.  They are provided by the Senior User

A.      1 and 2

B.       2 and 3

C.       3 and 4

D.      1 and 4

21.    Which is a purpose of a Project Product Description?

A.      To document the quality expectations of the customer

B.       To outline the quality assurance methods to be used by the project

C.       To ensure that Project Assurance responsibilities are defined for monitoring product delivery

D.      To provide details of what information will be produced for stakeholders and at what frequency it will be required

22.    Which is a purpose of the Quality theme?

A.      To establish how the project will ensure that all products created meet their requirements

B.       To establish quality assurance to maintain the quality management system

C.       To identify all the products of the project to ensure the scope has been adequately defined

D.      To determine the communication needs of the organization's quality assurance function

23.    Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.

Quality assurance provides assurance to the [ ? ] that the project is being conducted appropriately whilst Project Assurance provides the same assurance to all the project's stakeholders.

A.      Project Manager

B.       Executive

C.       corporate or programme management organization

D.      Supplier groups

24.    Which is part of quality control?

A.      Documenting the project's acceptance criteria in the Project Product Description

B.       Defining the quality responsibilities of those involved in the production of the products

C.       Producing quality records to show that the planned quality activities have been carried out

D.      Maintaining the corporate organization's quality management system

25.  Which product identifies the management stages and timescales of a project?

A.    Project Brief

B.     Project Product Description

C.     Project Plan

D.    Initiation Stage Plan

26.    Which is a purpose of an Exception Plan?

A.      To show the reason for the tolerance deviation from a Stage Plan or Project Plan

B.       To reduce the number of exception assessments, by agreeing a budget to cover the costs of any requests for change

C.       To identify the actions required to recover from the effect of a tolerance deviation

D.      To define the changes which are within the scope of the change budget

27.    What are the three levels of plan recommended by PRINCE2?

A.      Benefits Review Plan, Exception Plan, Project Plan

B.       Benefits Review Plan, Project Plan, Stage Plan

C.       Exception Plan, Project Plan, Stage Plan

D.      Project Plan, Stage Plan, Team Plan

28.    Which product-based planning activity is undertaken for the Project Plan only?

A.      Create the product flow diagram

B.       Write the Product Descriptions

C.       Create the product breakdown structure

D.      Write the Project Product Description

29.    Identify the missing words in the following sentence.

The first task of [ ? ] is writing the Project Product Description.

A.      product-based planning

B.       the initiation stage

C.       the PRINCE2 approach to plans

D.      the issue and change control procedure

30.    What is performed as part of the recommended risk management procedure?

A.      A budget to investigate issues is allocated

B.       Risk management practices are reviewed to ensure that they are performed effectively

C.       Information about risks to the projects is sent to project stakeholders

D.      Conflicts between the project and the programme board are resolved

31.    Which statement describes the responsibilities of a risk actionee?

A.      To identifying risks to the project that might occur in their department

B.       To own and authorize the use of the risk budget to fund risk responses

C.       To manage, monitor and control of all aspects of an assigned risk

D.      To carry out a risk response action to respond to a particular risk

32.    What is risk impact?

A.      The timeframe within which the risk might occur

B.       The trigger that occurred giving rise to the risk

C.       The effect of the risk on the delivery of project objectives

D.      The probability of the risk occurring in a given project situation

33.    What is a risk effect?

A.      The uncertainty expressed as a negative or favourable occurrence

B.       The issue which is affecting the project and has resulted in a risk

C.       The impact(s) on the project objectives should the threat or opportunity occur

D.      The change in the status of a risk in response to actions taken to control it

34.    Which is a purpose of a Risk Register?

A.      To capture risks that may occur during the project

B.       To record how risk management activities will be undertaken on the project

C.       To record the risk tolerance for the project

D.      To capture issues which are impacting on the delivery of the project objectives

35.    "Which statements about risk are CORRECT?

1.  A risk is defined as an uncertain event that, should it occur, will have an effect on the achievement of objectives

2.  An opportunity is a risk that could have a positive impact on the achievement of objectives

3.  An off-specification is a risk that a product will fail to meet its quality criteria

4.  A threat is a negative consequence that will occur from carrying out the project"

A.      1 and 2

B.       2 and 3

C.       3 and 4

D.      1 and 4

36.    Which risk response type is appropriate to respond to an opportunity?

A.    Accept

B.       Fallback

C.       Exploit

D.      Transfer

37.    What may be funded from a risk budget?

A.      Corrections required due to off-specifications

B.       Impact analysis of requests for change

C.       Implementation of a fallback plan

D.      Preparation of the Risk Management Strategy

38.    Which is a purpose of the Risk theme?

A.      To establish a procedure to ensure every change is agreed by the relevant authority before it takes place

B.       To establish a cost-effective procedure to identify, assess and control uncertainty

C.       To establish mechanisms to control any unacceptable deviations from plan

D.      To establish mechanisms to manage risks at the corporate or programme level of an organization

39.  What is an off-specification?

A.    A new requirement

B.     A quality tolerance

C.     A type of issue

D.    A major risk

40.    Which is a typical core activity within configuration management?

A.      Issue management

B.       Quality inspection

C.       Identification

D.      Preparation

41.    Which product is used to obtain formal advice from the Project Board?

A.      Checkpoint Report

B.       Issue Report

C.       Work Package

D.      Follow-on action recommendations

42.    Which statement about the Change theme is INCORRECT?

A.      Change control should prevent any changes to baselined products

B.       Baselined products require configuration management to ensure control

C.       A project can fail without a successful change control procedure

D.      Changes should be assessed against baselined products

43.    Which describes a use of a Configuration Item Record?

A.      To define the identification scheme to be applied to the project

B.       To identify the techniques and procedures required within the Work Package

C.       To record the change in a product's status

D.      To record the reporting requirements for the Work Package

44.    Which should be funded from a change budget?

A.      The Starting up a Project process

B.       A fallback plan

C.       An agreed change to the scope of a project

D.      A change to a plan, within allocated tolerances, due to poor estimating

45.    Who does the Team Manager report to and take direction from?

A.      Project Board

B.       Project Assurance

C.       Project Manager

D.      Project Support

46.    Which is a difference between management and technical stages?

A.      Management stages require planning; technical stages do NOT require planning

B.       Technical stages can overlap; management stages CANNOT overlap

C.       Management stages deliver products; technical stages do NOT deliver products

D.      Technical stages require resources; management stages do NOT require resources

47.    Which product is used to pass responsibility for the delivery of a product to a Team Manager or team member?

A.      Stage Plan

B.       Product Description

C.       Checkpoint Report

D.      Work Package

48.    Whose approval is needed to replace a Stage Plan with an Exception Plan?

A.      Corporate or programme management

B.       Project Board

C.       Project Manager

D.      Team Manager

49.    How many management stages should a PRINCE2 project consist of?

A.      Start up stage, initiation stage and at least one other management stage to cover the remainder of the project

B.       Start up stage, at least one other management stage to cover the remainder of the project and a closing stage

C.       Initiation stage and at least one other management stage to cover the remainder of the project

D.      Start up stage, initiation stage and a closing stage

50.    Which is NOT a purpose of the Progress theme?

A.      To monitor and compare actual achievement against those planned

B.       To define the means of delivering products

C.       To control any unacceptable deviation

D.      To provide a forecast for the project objectives and the project's continued viability

51.    Where should the Project Manager record an issue that is being managed informally?

A.      Issue Register

B.       Daily Log

C.       Risk Register

D.      Lessons Log

52.    Which is a purpose of an End Stage Report?

A.      To allow the Project Manager to decide whether the project should continue

B.       To inform the Project Manager about stage progress

C.       To allow the Project Board to decide whether to authorize the next stage

D.      To recommend project closure to the Project Board

53.    Which is an objective of the Starting up a Project process?

A.      To approve the initiation stage

B.       To select the project mandate

C.       To define the project Quality Management Strategy

D.      To appoint the project management team

54.    Which process ensures that key roles and responsibilities are allocated before a decision is made to initiate a project?

A.      Managing Product Delivery

B.       Initiating a Project

C.       Managing a Stage Boundary

D.      Starting up a Project

55.    Why is a Project Brief produced?

A.      To act as a trigger for the Starting up a Project process

B.       To record the strategies and management controls to be used by a project

C.       To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project

D.      To be used by the Project Board as a basis for reviewing the progress of a project

56.    During the Starting up a Project process, what should be done to reduce the number of issues and exceptions in later stages?

A.      Evaluate possible methods of delivering the project

B.       Appoint the Team Managers

C.       Ensure the requirements are captured clearly

D.      Produce the initiation Stage Plan

57.    What process is used by the Project Board to respond to an Exception Report?

A.      Controlling a Stage

B.       Managing a Stage Boundary

C.       Managing Product Delivery

D.      Directing a Project

58.    Which is a key decision made during the Directing a Project process?

A.      Select and appoint the Project Executive

B.       Approve the Project Manager role description

C.       Confirm that the Benefits Review Plan addresses all expected benefits

D.      Approve the proposed Project Mandate

59.    Which is an objective of the Directing a Project process?

A.      To revise the Project Mandate in response to any events external to the project

B.       To provide an interface between project and corporate or programme management

C.       To establish a solid foundation for commencing the Starting up a Project process

D.      To define the arrangements for implementing project governance arrangements

60.    What process provides the information required to decide whether to authorize the delivery of a project?

A.      Directing a Project

B.       Initiating a Project

C.       Managing Product Delivery

D.      Starting up a Project

61.    Which statements about the Project Initiation Documentation are CORRECT?

1.  It is used to ensure that a sound basis exists before the Project Board authorizes a project

2.  It should be updated at the end of each stage to reflect the current status of a project

3.  It is assembled in the Starting up a Project process

4.  It describes how the principles will be tailored for the project

A.      1 and 2

B.       2 and 3

C.       3 and 4

D.      1 and 4

62.    Which process is used to define how baselines will be established and controlled?

A.      Controlling a Stage

B.       Directing a Project

C.       Initiating a Project

D.      Starting up a Project

63.    Which document should specify how the Project Board will approve the management products created during the Initiating a Project process?

A.      Project Plan

B.       Initiation Stage Plan

C.       Quality Management Strategy

D.      Project Initiation Documentation

64.    Which process is triggered towards the end of the final stage when all the assigned work has been completed?

A.      Managing a Stage Boundary

B.       Managing Product Delivery

C.       Closing a Project

D.      Controlling a Stage

65.    Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?

A.      To assign work to be done and take corrective action to ensure that the stage remains within tolerance

B.       To provide a fixed reference point at which acceptance for the project product is confirmed

C.       To enable the Project Board to be provided with sufficient information to authorize the next stage

D.      To enable the organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's products

66.    Identify the missing words in the following sentence.

An objective of the [ ? ] process is to ensure that risks and issues are kept under control through active management.

A.      Managing a Stage Boundary

B.       Directing a Project

C.       Controlling a Stage

D.      Managing Product Delivery

67.    When are tolerances for a Work Package agreed?

A.      When accepting a Work Package

B.       When work on each product within the Work Package begins

C.       When all products have been developed and approved

D.      When the Stage Plan is authorized by the Project Board

68.    Which two roles are linked by the Managing Product Delivery process?

A.      Corporate or programme management and Project Board

B.       Project Board and Project Manager

C.       Project Manager and Team Manager

D.      Team Manager and external supplier

69.    Which process aims to ensure accurate progress information is provided to the Project Manager?

A.      Starting up a Project

B.       Managing a Stage Boundary

C.       Managing Product Delivery

D.      Directing a Project

70.    Which plan is created, and submitted for approval, during the Managing a Stage Boundary process?

A.      Team Plan

B.       Stage Plan

C.       Benefits Review Plan

D.      Project Plan

71.    Which process provides information for the Project Board to review a completed stage and confirm continued business justification?

A.      Controlling a Stage

B.       Closing a Project

C.       Directing a Project

D.      Managing a Stage Boundary

72.    During the Managing a Stage Boundary process, if external factors are identified that may affect the business justification for a project, which product should be updated?

A.      Business Case

B.       Project Brief

C.       End Project Report

D.      Highlight Report

73.    Which statements about the Closing a Project process are CORRECT?

1.  It receives the completed Work Packages for the final stage

2.  It reviews whether the original objectives have been achieved.

3.  It confirms that the project product has been accepted

4.  It includes the production of the Benefits Review Plan

A.      1 and 2

B.       2 and 3

C.       3 and 4

D.      1 and 4

74.    When are project closure activities planned?

A.      During the initiation stage

B.       When the Stage Plan for the final management stage is produced

C.       As the first activity in the Closing a Project process

D.      In the last Work Package allocated to a Team Manager

75.    Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process?

A.    To prepare the plan for the next stage

B.       To assess any benefits that have already been realized

C.       To produce a Benefits Review Plan to identify what benefits are expected

D.      To check that all benefits are realized before closing a project